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Throughout the history of philosophy, many theorists have attempted to explain the meaning and cause of people’s sorrows. One philosopher, Spinoza, claimed that everything ultimately follows from God and that sadness is a person’s passage from a greater degree of perfection to a lesser one. 1 Contrastingly, Spinoza goes on to state that though everything ultimately derives from God, he/she cannot be the cause of sadness since he/she is perfect. 2 Despite what appears to be an incongruent argument, can one still find a way to claim that Spinoza is consistent when he states that all things ultimately derive from God’s flawlessness, despite the reality of sadness?